Description
NR566 Week 4 Midterm Exam
- What is the MOST common adverse effect associated with Integrated Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Dizziness and insomnia
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: C. Dizziness and insomnia
- What is the mechanism of action of carbapenems?
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. Disruption of cell membrane integrity
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
Correct Answer: B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
- A 6-year-old child with an E. coli urinary tract infection requires oral penicillin therapy. Which medication is preferred and why?
A. Amoxicillin because it achieves higher blood levels with oral dosing
B. Penicillin V because of broad gram-negative coverage
C. Ampicillin because it is resistant to β-lactamase degradation
D. Dicloxacillin because it is penicillinase-resistant
Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin because it achieves higher blood levels with oral dosing
- When is sensitivity testing MOST likely to be performed for antibiotic selection?
A. When the infecting organism is unknown
B. When resistance is common in the infecting organism
C. When previous allergic reactions are reported
D. When resistance is unlikely in the infecting organism
Correct Answer: B. When resistance is common in the infecting organism
- The nurse practitioner prescribes topical vaginal estrogen therapy for a menopausal patient. What is the primary treatment goal?
A. Reduction in cervical cancer risk
B. Improvement in vulvovaginal atrophy
C. Improvement in bone density
D. Reduction in SSRI dosage requirements
Correct Answer: B. Improvement in vulvovaginal atrophy
- Which medications are considered first-line therapy for enterobiasis?
A. Pyrantel pamoate and praziquantel
B. Ivermectin and moxidectin
C. Albendazole and mebendazole
D. Triclabendazole and diethylcarbamazine
Correct Answer: C. Albendazole and mebendazole
- Why is hormone therapy (HT) not recommended as first-line prevention for osteoporosis in all postmenopausal women?
A. HT is ineffective at preventing bone loss
B. HT must be stopped immediately after menopause
C. HT increases the risk of osteoporosis
D. HT is associated with increased adverse effects
Correct Answer: D. HT is associated with increased adverse effects
- A 70-year-old immunocompromised patient presents within 3 days of mild COVID-19 symptom onset. Which treatment is most appropriate to reduce progression to severe disease?
A. Ritonavir
B. Monoclonal antibody
C. Dexamethasone
D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: B. Monoclonal antibody
- A patient with HIV develops manifestations of lactic acidosis while receiving antiretroviral therapy. Which drug class is most commonly associated with this complication?
A. Protease inhibitors
B. Fusion inhibitors
C. Nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors
Correct Answer: C. Nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors


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