NR566 WEEK 6 QUIZ

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NR566 WEEK 6 QUIZ

1. A 35-year-old patient is being treated for major depressive disorder with a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Which statement best explains the therapeutic mechanism of this drug class?

A. It decreases glutamate release to prevent neuronal overstimulation
B. It blocks dopamine receptors to reduce psychotic symptoms
C. It enhances GABA activity to decrease neural hyperexcitability
D. It increases serotonin and norepinephrine levels in the synaptic cleft to improve mood

Correct Answer: D. It increases serotonin and norepinephrine levels in the synaptic cleft to improve mood

2. A 42-year-old patient receiving lithium therapy for bipolar disorder develops tremor, nausea, and new-onset confusion. Which finding most strongly suggests lithium toxicity, and what should be the initial intervention?

A. Serum lithium level of 0.3 mEq/L; repeat the level in one week
B. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L; continue the current dosage
C. Serum lithium level of 1.5 mEq/L; continue lithium for symptom management
D. Serum lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L; hold the medication and evaluate renal function