NR601 Final Exam 2026/2027 |100% Verified Answers | Latest Updated Edition

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NR601 Final Exam 2026/2027 | Comprehensive Nursing Exam Questions and 100% Verified Answers | Latest Updated Edition

A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman with an intact uterus asks about estrogen therapy for fracture prevention. What additional medication is MOST important to include if you prescribe estrogen?

Answers: A – D

1. Alendronate (Fosamax)
2. Raloxifene (Evista)
3. Calcitonin-salmon (Miacalcin)
4. ✅ Progesterone (Prometrium)

An NP is evaluating a hospitalized 62-year-old female and suspects inflammation-related malnutrition. Which of the following findings BEST supports this clinical suspicion?

Answers: A – D

1. The patient has a normal BMI but has lost 4% of body weight over two months
2. The patient has persistent diarrhea and reported poor food intake
3. Micronutrient deficiencies are suspected based on recent medication use
4. ✅ Albumin and prealbumin levels are decreased in the setting of elevated CRP

A patient presents with complaints of dry skin, brittle hair, and fatigue. On physical examination, the NP notes nonpitting pretibial edema, a puffy face, and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. Laboratory results show the following:

TSH: 18.6 mIU/L

Free T4: 0.4 ng/dL

Hemoglobin: 11.2 g/dL

Sodium: 135 mEq/L

Based on the clinical presentation and lab findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention to address the underlying condition?

Answers: A – D

1. ✅ Prescribe a starting dose of levothyroxine and follow up in 6 weeks
2. Recommend increased vitamin A intake to manage carotene accumulation
3. Prescribe topical corticosteroids for dry skin and refer to dermatology
4. Order an MRI of the brain to evaluate for pituitary mass

An 80-year-old patient is newly diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment strategy in this population?

Answers: A – D

1. ✅ Begin with a low-dose SSRI and titrate slowly based on response and tolerability
2. Prescribe tricyclic antidepressants as first-line treatment due to cost
3. Avoid SSRIs due to risk of sedation and falls
4. Start a full adult dose of an SSRI to achieve a faster response

A 38-year-old patient with a BMI of 28 kg/m² and a family history of type 2 diabetes presents for a routine checkup. The patient has no current symptoms of diabetes. Based on screening recommendations from the American Diabetes Association (ADA), which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

Answers: A – D

1. Perform an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) as it is the only valid screening method
2. ✅ Order fasting plasma glucose (FPG) or HbA1c testing due to the weight and family history
3. Delay diabetes screening until the patient turns 45, as the patient is asymptomatic
4. Screen for type 1 diabetes immunologic markers, there is a family history of diabetes